While there are other good questions circulating about the Cons' veiled voter law, I'm particularly curious about the timing involved.
After all, the Cons admitted just this week to having made a serious mistake in their last attempt to limit voting access. And I'd think it would only make sense to deal with a major issue like the negligent disenfranchisement of over a million voters at the first possible opportunity.
Obviously the Cons disagree, based on their choice to deal with the veiled voter issue sooner and separately. But what does it say about their interest in restoring the vote to rural citizens that they're making it a higher priority to further restrict voting first?
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